I'm involved in researching Hebrew terms that are used in Isaiah 7:14 in comparison to the Greek terms recorded in Matthew 1: 23. I'm interested only in what Jewish scholars say on this matter; the reasons some prefer not to use a Jewish source for translating Hebrew in the New Testament are most obvious. At best, their reasons are foolish and self-deceiving, for if the foundation of their religious beliefs are based upon the Hebrew writings, it is utterly absurd of them to prefer sources other than Jewish ones to interpret Hebrew words, which were translated into Greek in the New Testament.

Could you assist me by sharing your opinion as to which of the following translations of Isaiah 7:14 is correct?

"laken yittan adonai hu lakem oth hinneh ha-almah harah ve-yeldeth ben ve-karath shem-o immanuel."

"Behold, the young woman has conceived [is with child], and bears a son and they will name him Immanuel." - Isaiah 7:14 (Terms are present or past tense)

"Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel." - Matthew 1: 23 (Terms are all future tense)

For it is obvious to me that one of these translations isn't merely an innocent case of the interpreter simply being careless in his interpretation of Isaiah 7:14, but is purposely being deceitful; fabricating a tale to serve his scheme.